If Calvinism is true, then my three children's fate has been secured by what God has degreed. God has either damned them all to hell, some to hell, or none to hell. If I were a consistent Calvinist, I would have to resign myself to the fact that no amount of prayer would change their "election status". Some would even say that to desire what God does not is a sin. They would say, " Who are you to want what God does not want?" Some Calvinist would agree, some would not.
Some would even go so far as to say that God does desire the salvation of all. They explain that God has two wills that contradict each other. Will someone explain how the sovereign God of Calvinism can have two wills opposite of each other? Oh wait, they would say it is a mystery. Some say mystery, some say contradiction. If this is biblical, show me.
Meanwhile explain this passage- Eze 33:11 Say unto them, As I live, saith the Lord GOD, I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked; but that the wicked turn from his way and live: turn ye, turn ye from your evil ways; for why will ye die, O house of Israel?
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3 comments:
I think you misunderstand. Here's an example of what one means when one says God has two wills:
1. Does God like sin? - No.
2. Could He stop sin? - Yes.
3. Do people sin? - Yes.
Why, then, does God allow sin? He could stop it, and should, if He doesn't like it... right? This is the point. God does whatever He pleases (Psalm 135:6). It doesn't please Him when we sin. But He allows it, because He is a patient God (2 Peter 3:9, 15). He allows it because it pleases Him to allow it (unless you contradict Psalm 135:6). So in one sense, it pleases Him to allow sin (this is what Calvinists would refer to as His sovereign will), and in another sense it doesn't please Him (this is what Calvinists would describe as His moral will). His moral will is submissive to His sovereign will. Sometimes they coincide, sometimes they don't. But God's will will be done.
You cited Ezekiel 33:11, a part of which says: "As I live, saith the Lord GOD, I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked."
My question would be: then why do the wicked die? God does as He pleases, and in one sense it must please Him that the wicked die. This must be true, or Psalm 135:6 is false. But if it pleases Him in one sense (Psalm 135:6 is only an example, btw - there are plenty of other Scriptures that say God does as He pleases), and displeases Him in another (Ezekiel 33:11), how can you deny He has two wills?
Hope that helped.
Thank you for your response. I hope to address the comments in a future blog on the will of God.
You are most welcome! :)
On a side note, it is good to see we are able to debate things calmly and respectfully. You can't imagine the rudeness of some people these days.
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